I know the logic of how Fourier transforms work, and I know the logic of how convolution works, but I can't figure out why convolution in the time domain is equal to multiplication in the frequency domain. I am looking for a logical/intuitive answer, not a mathematical proof. Thanks in advance.
2026-04-12 10:38:34.1775990314
Why is convolution in the time domain equal to multiplication in the frequency domain? (intuitively, not mathematically)
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