My physics prof pulled this out of the air to swap the limits on an integral:
$\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-ix} \, dx = \int_{-\infty}^{0} e^{ix} \, dx$
"because the integrand is odd."
So far as I can tell:
$f(x) = e^{-ix}$
$$= \cos(-x) + i \sin(-x)$$
$$= \cos(x) - i \sin(x)$$
$f(-x) = e^{ix}$
$$= \cos(x) + i \sin(x)$$
$-f(x) = -e^{-ix} $
$$= - \cos(x) + i \sin(x), $$
therefore
$-f(x) \neq f(-x) $
and the function is not odd?
I'm guessing 9:1 I'm wrong, someone let me know why :')
Physicists often use a “free” language in the math domain.;-)
You are, of course, right — the integrand is not an odd function.
I guess that the author wanted to express something as this, having in mind that the identity ($x \mapsto x$) is an odd fuction:
LHS integrand is $\ e^{-ix}$ and integration is for values in interval $ [0, \infty)$.
Every $x$ we may express as $-(-x)\ $, or as $-y$, where $y = -x$. Then $$ e^{-ix} = e^{(-i)(-y)} = e^{iy}$$
But if $x \in [0, \infty)$, then $y \in (-\infty, 0]$, so by the substitution $y = -x$ we obtain
$$\int_{0}^{\infty} e^{-ix} \, \mathrm dx = \int_{-\infty}^{0} e^{iy} \, \mathrm dy = \int_{-\infty}^{0} e^{ix} \, \mathrm dx$$