Suppose that I state in natural language the following theorem:
There is an $x$ and an $y$ such that $A(x, y)$ is true.
Why is $\exists x\exists y\colon A(x, y)$ an appropriate formalization of this sentence?
I interpret the formula $\exists x\exists y\colon A(x, y)$ as saying "there is an $x$ for which there is an $y$ such that $A(x, y)$". On the other hand, I interpret the above natural language sentence as asserting "there is a pair of objects $(x,y)$ for which $A(x, y)$ is true". Can you convince me that the two are essentially the same?
Is the following convincing enough?
Assume there's an $x$ and a $y$, such that $A(x,y)$ is true. Then take that $x$ and (for that $x$, the) $y$ and thus you have an $x$ for which there's a $y$ such that $A(x,y)$ is true.
Assume there's an $x$ for which there's a $y$ such that $A(x,y)$ is true. Then take those, form a pair, and so there's an $(x,y)$ such that $A(x,y)$ is true.