in Probability and Random Processes by Geoffrey R. Grimmett, David R.
there is this example that is driving me crazy :
I just can't get my head around why is $f_{X,Y}(x,y)$ even a joint distribution function as $\int_{[0,1]^2} x^{-1} d \lambda$ doesn't even converge in the first place.
I'm fairly sure that's a typo, right ?