Oh yes, I do know division by zero is not defined. But look at this problem:
Find the Cartesian equation of the line that passes through $(3,-2,-5)$ and $(3,-2,6)$.
And the answer is conveniently stated to be: $$\frac{(x-3)}{0} = \frac{(y+2)}{0} = \frac{(z+5)}{11}$$
What gives us the liberty to divide by zero?
Insert a value of $x$; $2$ for example. $2$ divided by zero is infinity. But $\frac{(z+5)}{11}$ will give us a real value!
Please help me clear this silly confusion.
The more precise formula for the line that passes through $(a,b,c)$ and $(d,e,f)$ is that it is given by the three equations \begin{align*} (x-a)(e-b)&=(y-b)(d-a)\\ (x-a)(f-c)&=(z-c)(d-a)\\ (y-b)(f-c)&=(z-c)(e-b). \end{align*} When $d-a$ and $e-b$ and $f-c$ are all nonzero, these can be combined into the single pair of equations $$ \frac{x-a}{d-a} = \frac{y-b}{e-b} = \frac{z-c}{f-c}. $$ However, that convenience comes at a cost of loss of generality, as you've noted. Nevertheless, the formula above does give the correct answer here: \begin{align*} (x-3)((-2)-(-2))&=(y-(-2))(3-3)\\ (x-3)(6-(-5))&=(z-(-5))(3-3)\\ (y-(-2))(6-(-5))&=(z-(-5))((-2)-(-2)), \end{align*} which simplifies to the correct equations for this line: \begin{align*} 0&=0 \\ x&=3 \\ y&=-2. \end{align*}