Why is $\displaystyle\sum\limits_{k=0}^{n}(-1)^k\binom{n}{k}^2=(-1)^{n/2}\binom{n}{n/2}$ if $n$ is even ?
The case if $n$ is odd, is clear, since $\displaystyle(-1)^k\binom{n}{k}+(-1)^{n-k}\binom{n}{n-k}=0$ (we have $(n+1)/2$ such pairs.)
but if $n$ is even we have no symmetry, I tried to consider the odd and even terms separately but with no success.
Do you have an idea ? Thanks in advance.
$$\sum_k (-1)^k{n\choose k}^2= \sum_k (-1)^k{n\choose k}{n\choose n-k}$$ is the coefficient of $x^n$ in $$(1-x)^n(1+x)^n=\sum_k{(-1)^k{n\choose k}}x^k\cdot \sum_k{{n\choose k}}x^k.$$ As $(1-x)^n(1+x)^n=(1-x^2)^n$, the claim follows (and we additionally see that $\sum_k (-1)^k{n\choose k}^2=0$ if $n$ is odd).