Let $$ C=\{(x,y,z)\mid x^2+y^2=1, 0 \le z \le 1\} $$
Counter-calculus, my intuition says that the area of a circle with radius $r$ should be $2 \pi \cdot R^2$, because I think that if all radii segments are to be raised perpendicularly to the perimeter of the unit circle (at plane $xy$), then the area is preserved.
I know I am wrong but I don't (qualitatively) understand why (note I never learnt measure theory).





It is true that if you draw lines from each point on the circumference to the center, you will cover the entire interior of the circle without overlap (except at the center).
However, that is not the limit of a process of ever finer divisions that cover the interior of the circle more and more accurately. On the contrary, if you divide the circumference into $n$ intervals, and construct strips toward the center, you will find that they always overlap for any finite $n$, and what's more, the degree of overlap remains more or less consistent, approaching (in the limit as $n \to \infty$) a factor of $2$.
That is why this process yields a limiting total coverage of $2 \pi r^2$, even though the actual area of the circle is only half of that. The process that covers the interior of the circle more and more accurately is to draw wedges (not strips) from the circumference toward the center point. In the limit, these wedges produce zero overlap, and since they have a collective area equal to half that of the strips, they yield the correct total area: $\pi r^2$.