Can anyone explain why the curl of this function zero ? Clearly it's rotating then how is it irrotational ? Someone on SE said
Not to mistake Curl for rotation, they aren't exactly similar.
Is this true ?
$\vec{V}(x,y,z)=[\frac{−y}{x^2+y^2},\frac{x}{x^2+y^2},0]$
Image Source: WolframAlpha
Edit : As pointed by Rahul the topic of irrotational vortices have been already discussed over here, that somehow clears my intuitive understanding of curl: rotating the particles about their axes and not just revolving around center (which Travis has already pointed out in his answer) of the vortex but this still doesn't clear up my doubt about why the intuitive understanding doesn't match the calculations.
If the curl is present at the center (z-axis), why doesn't it show up in the result (which is zero)?

It's true that the $\bf V$ is "rotating" in that sense that, informally, if you place a particle in $\Bbb R^3 - \{\textrm{$z$-axis}\}$ and let it move with velocity the value of $\bf V$ wherever it is, after time $t$ it will have rotated anticlockwise $t$ radians about the $z$-axis.
However, $\operatorname{curl}$ doesn't measure this sort of rotation---rather, it measures the infinitesimal rotation of the vector field about each point, and for the particular vector field $\bf V$ this rotation is zero about every point.