Let $X$ be random variable with pdf $f_X(x) = \dfrac{1}{\pi(1+x^2)}$. I understand that mathematically, the improper integral, $\displaystyle\int\limits_{-\infty}^{\infty}\dfrac{x}{\pi(1+x^2)}dx$ does not exist ($\underset{T_1\to-\infty}{\lim}\underset{T_2\to\infty}{\lim}\displaystyle\int\limits_{T_1}^{T_2}\dfrac{x}{\pi(1+x^2)}dx = \frac{\ln(1+T_2^2) - \ln(1+T_1^2)}{2\pi} = \infty - \infty) \implies$ undefined. However I am unable to understand the intuition, why $E[X] \ne 0$ since the pdf is an even function which takes positive and negative values with equal probability. Hence large enough samples should produce mean close to 0. Please help?
2026-03-26 04:38:04.1774499884
Why is the expectation of cauchy distribution not defined? (What is the intuition behind it?)
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