Why is the expectation of this bi-variate distribution calculated this way?

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The following distribution is given for this problem:

$f(x, y)= \begin{cases}8 x y & \text { if } 0 \leq y \leq x \leq 1 \\ 0 & \text { otherwise }\end{cases}$

given is $x= \frac{1}{2}$.

The problem is

Calculate the expected value of $Y^3$ if $X=\frac{1}{2}$.

From the definition I would integrate $f(\frac{1}{2},y)Y^3$ from $0$ to $\frac{1}{2}$, since that is the upper $y$ value at $x=\frac{1}{2}$. However this is wrong. The manual gives the solution

$E\left(Y^3 \mid X=\frac{1}{2}\right)=\int_0^{\frac{1}{2}} y^3 f\left(y \mid \frac{1}{2}\right) d y=\frac{1}{20}$

My question is:

Why do I need to condition first on $x$, what is the intunition behind it?

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If you were using discrete variables, say rolling a 6-sided and a 12-sided die, summing $p(3,y)$ for y from 1 to 12 would tell you the chance of getting a 3 on the 6-sided die. Summing $yp(3,y)$ would tell you expected value of "Y times the chance of getting a X=3 for that Y", which is not on the surface a terribly useful thing to know.

For continuous distributions, calculating $\int y f(0.5,y)dy$ is even less useful, since $f(x,y)$ doesn't give probabilities, it gives probability densities - so $\int f(0.5 , y)$ means something like "the expected value of "Y times the probability density of X, near X=0.5, for that Y". Again, not really useful.

That's why you have to work out $f(y|X=0.5)$, which is "the probability density function for Y given X=0.5" and then only work out the expectation value.