On the real line $\mathbb{R}$, if one uses the usual metric $d(x,y) = |x−y|$, then the set ${\{1\}}$ is not open, however if instead one uses the discrete metric $d_{disc}$, then ${\{1\}}$ is now an open set.
I don't quite understand the reasoning behind the above statement. Also would it be closed on $\mathbb{Q},\mathbb{Z}?$
I know that a space is defined as closed, if it contains its boundary, but for the set ${\{1\}}$ I am not sure which is the boundry?
For this problem, a better (and equivalent) definition of closed is: $A$ is closed if and only if $\Bbb{R}\setminus A$ is open. So, in the usual topology, pick any real number $x$ not in the set $\{ 1 \}$. Clearly there is some $\varepsilon > 0$ such that $(x-\varepsilon, x+\varepsilon)$ does not include $1$. Thus the complement of $\{ 1 \}$ is open, so $\{ 1 \}$ is closed.
If you would rather use the "contains its boundary" definition, then consider this: $1$ is in the boundary with the usual metric because every open ball around $1$ will contain both the point $1$ and points not in $\{ 1 \}$. So, $1$ is in the boundary, and it is in the set, so the set contains its boundary.
In the discrete metric, $\{ 1 \}$ is the ball with radius $1/2$ centered at 1, so it contains an open ball around all of its points, and is thus open.