Note: $R$ is the topological space of reals, equipped with the standard topology.
A set $X$ is said to be path connected if there exists a continuous map, $f:R \to X$, such that for any $r_1,r_2 \in R$, with $r_1<r_2$, we have $f(r_1) = x$ and $f(r_2) = y$ and $x,y \in X$.
This seems like we are defining the topology on reals, $R$ to be path connected, by definition, as there always exists a homomorphism $f:R \to R$ and we are trying to extend this notion to other topological spaces $X$, through the continuous map $f:R \to X$.
It seems like, we could consider any connected space $Y$ and define it to be path connected. Then call $X$ to be path connected if there exists a continuous map $f:Y \to X$ satisfying the above conditions.
It seems like we are interested only in the topologies which are homomorphic to $R$. Why is a special preference given to the topology on reals?
Edit: It was pointed out by Jose Carlos Santos that my definition of path connectedness is wrong.
Your definition of path-connected is worst than wrong: it desn't make sense. How can we have $f(r_1)=x$ and $f(r_2)=y$ for any $r_1,r_2\in\mathbb R$? Even assuming that $r_1\neq r_2$.
The usual definition of path-conneced is: $X$ is path-connected if, for any $x,x'\in X$, there is a continuous map from some interval $[a,b]$ of $\mathbb R$ (with $a<b$) into $X$ such that $f(a)=x$ and that $f(b)=x'$. But $f$ usually is not a homeomorphism. Acutally, it doesn't even have to be a homeomorphism from $[a,b]$ onto $f\bigl([a,b]\bigr)$, since $f$ might not be one-to-one.