I am trying to understand the proof of the Converse Menelaus Theorem.
In the proof, it is written that from $\frac{AF}{FB}=\frac{AF'}{F'B}$, it follows that at most one point can cut a segment in a given ratio. I know it is quite intuitive, but I am still not 100% convinced why there should be at most one point? Why is it not possible for more than one point to cut a segment in a given ratio? I cannot give a counterexample but is there any other more convincing argument?
This maybe a very simple question but many thanks for the helps!
Let $L, R > 0$. Then the only solution to the system $x+y=L, y=Rx$ is $x=L/(R+1), y=RL/(R+1)$ which can be seen by solving the equations.