I wonder why the map $f:\mathbb R\to \mathbb R^2$ defined by $f(t)=(t^2, t^3)$ is not an immersion at 0. Isn't the derivative of $f$ is $(2t, 3t^2)$ which is injective? Thank you
2026-03-30 12:14:46.1774872886
Why is this map no an immersion at 0
82 Views Asked by user61527 https://math.techqa.club/user/user61527/detail AtRelated Questions in DIFFERENTIAL-GEOMETRY
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