$\mathcal{R} = \{(1,2), (2,3), (3,4)\} \:\: \mathcal{A} = \{1, 2, 3, 4\}$
The definition of antisymmetric states if $(a,b)$ and $(b,a)$ are both elements of $\mathcal{R} \implies a = b$. However, $(b,a)$ is not an element and yet it is considered antisymmetrical. What is the reasoning behind this?
When the statement does not say anything about what happens when both are not elements of $R$ as in this case, we can say that this statement is true because for a statement $p$, $F \implies p$ is always $T$ (For $p = F$, $F \implies F = T$ and for $p = T$, $F \implies T = T$).