This may be a stupid question but I was looking over a proof and one of the steps simplifies $|x|/x^2=1/|x|$ and I was wondering what the rigorous justification of that is. Is it because $x^2$ is essentially the same as $|x|^2$?
2026-04-09 00:00:45.1775692845
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Why is $|x|/x^2=1/|x|$
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If $x\in\mathbb R$, then by definition of absolute value:
If $x>0$, then $|x|=x$, which implies $$|x|^2=x^2$$
If $x<0$, then $|x|=-x$, which implies $$|x|^2=(-x)^2=x^2$$
So, you can deduce that $$|x|^2=x^2$$ holds for all $x\in\mathbb R.$
Thus,
$$\frac{|x|}{x^2}=\frac{|x|}{|x|^2}=\frac{1}{|x|}.$$
Yes!
For intuition, split into $2$ cases, $x$ positive and negative