A friend asked me, why
\begin{align} \lim_{n \to \infty} \frac{2^nn!}{(2n)!} = 0, && n\in \mathbb{N} \end{align}
and I couldn't answer. We already know that the sequence converges and we are pretty sure that it converges to zero. And the only thing we are allowed to use is the $\varepsilon$-method.
So let $\varepsilon > 0$. Choose $N:= ?$
\begin{align} \left|\frac{2^nn!}{(2n)!} - 0 \right| = \frac{2^nn!}{(2n)!} \leq ... < \varepsilon \end{align}
It seems that I don't know enough about $(2n)!$ so I can't estimate the term. Can you help me?
The expression $$\tag1\frac{(2n)!}{2^nn!}$$ is just the product of the first $n$ odd numbers. To see this note that $$2^nn!=(2\cdot2\cdot2\cdot \ldots\cdot 2)\cdot (1\cdot2\cdot 3\cdot \ldots \cdot n) =2\cdot 4\cdot6\cdot\ldots \cdot 2n.$$ The reciprocal of $(1)$ then clearly tends to $0$ as $n\to\infty$.