Why should we assume that only the positive part of a submartingale is integrable?

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In Stochastic Integration Theory by Peter Medvegyev, the author assumes that only the "negative part" $M^-:=\max(-M,0)$ of a supermartingale $M$ is integrable. Analogously, he assumes that only the "positive part" $N^+:=\max(N,0)$ of a submartingale $N$ is integrable.

Clearly, that's enough to ensure that all occuring integrals are well-defined. But what's the point of this assumption? Why he doesn't assume that $M^+$ and $N^-$ are integrable?

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Submartingales where originally defined as such and that is a weaker condition that leads to the convergence theorem (see Doob's Stochastic processes). Nowadays most authors just adopt the stricter condition of absolute integrability, which is what you propose.