Consider the following integral equation araising in a mathematical-physical problem: $$ \int_0^r f(t) \arcsin \left( \frac{t}{r} \right) \, \mathrm{d}t + \frac{\pi}{2} \int_r^R f(t) \, \mathrm{d} t = r \, \qquad (0<r<R) \, , $$ where $f(t)$ is the unknown function, and $R$ is a positive real number. By differentiating both sides of this equation with respect to the variable $r$, one obtains $$ -\frac{1}{r} \int_0^r \frac{f(t)t \, \mathrm{d}t}{\sqrt{r^2-t^2}} = 1 \, , $$ the solution of which can readily be obtained as $$ f(t) = -1 \, . $$
Nevertheless, upon substitution of the latter solution into the original integral equation given above, one rather gets an additional $-\pi R/2$ term on the left hand side.
i was wondering whether some math details or assumptions are overlooked here during this resolution. Any help would be highly appreciated.
An alternative resolution approach that leads to the desired solution is also most welcome.
Thank you
The reason is that taking a derivative is not an invertible operation. So the new equation you obtain is true, but not equivalent to the original one -- the set of solutions has increased.
The simplest example is trying to solve an ordinary equation, say, $$ x=1 $$ The obvious solution is $x=1$. But if you square both sides, you obtain $x^2=1$, which now has two solutions, $x=\pm 1$. The new "wrong" solution appeared because taking a square is not invertible (the kernel is the negatives).
Similarly, taking a derivative is not invertible. Consider the equation $$ f(t)=t $$ The obvious solution is $f(t)=t$. But if you take a derivative, you get $f'(t)=1$, whose general solution is $f(t)=t+c$, for an arbitrary $c$. The "wrong" solutions, those with $c\neq0$, appeared because taking a derivative is not invertible (the kernel is the constants).