By repeating $p+1$ knots in spline, we can let a spline interpolate in a point. This is true but I don't understand why it happens for $p+1$ knots? If I can find somewhere a proof or someone can give a little bit of explanation, it would be great :-)
2026-03-25 19:24:55.1774466695
Why spline interpolate by repeating p+1 knots?
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