What is the underlying reason, that $\pi$ is of degree $1$ in the volume formula for an $n$-ball of radius $r$,
i.e. the perimeter of circle is $$2\pi \cdot r$$ its area is $$\pi \cdot r^2$$ the volume of a ball is $$\frac{4}{3} \pi \cdot r^3$$
$r$ gets raised to an appropriate power, but $\pi$ remains $\pi$, with only a constant in front of it changing?
I don't know if this qualifies as an "underlying" reason, but various rearrangement proofs like this one can be very convincing as to "why" $\pi$ remains just $\pi$ while going from circumference to area.
Pretty much the same idea, but using integration instead of rearrangement, applies in higher dimensions.
IMHO the question isn't why $\pi$ does not become $\pi^2$ etc, but why $\pi$ does not become some totally unrelated constant at all. :)