For any $g \in \omega^\omega$,
Why the set $\{f \in \omega^\omega : \exists_{m}\forall_{m \leq n}^{}(f(n)\neq g(n))\}$ is $F_{\sigma}$ and meager?.
I do not know why this set is $F_{\sigma}$ and meager.
A suggestion please.
For any $g \in \omega^\omega$,
Why the set $\{f \in \omega^\omega : \exists_{m}\forall_{m \leq n}^{}(f(n)\neq g(n))\}$ is $F_{\sigma}$ and meager?.
I do not know why this set is $F_{\sigma}$ and meager.
A suggestion please.
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If you want to prove directly that the set is $F_\sigma$, let the set in question be $F$, and for each $m\in\omega$ let
$$\begin{align*}F_m&=\left\{f\in{^\omega\omega}:\forall n\ge m\big(f(n)\ne g(n)\big)\right\}\\ &=\bigcap_{n\ge m}\left\{f\in{^\omega\omega}:f(n)\ne g(n)\right\}\;; \end{align*}$$
clearly each $F_m$, being an intersection of closed sets, is closed, and $F=\bigcup_{m\in\omega}F_m$, so $F$ is an $F_\sigma$.
It remains to show that each $F_m$ is nowhere dense; try showing that each basic open set in ${^\omega\omega}$ contains a point not in $F_m$. I’ve completed the argument in the spoiler-protected block below.