Why we can not differentiate functions that have closed ball domain?
I think this comes from the idea that we can not differentiate functions that have closed intervals domain, as in this case we can study differentiation on the open interval and then study differentiation from the left at the end point of the interval and study differentiation from right at the starting point of the interval. am I correct?
If so how can I explain this for functions having closed ball domain?
Thanks!
There's no intrinsic reason not to define a derivative of a function defined on a closed ball, at a point on the boundary on that ball.
In more detail, if $B = \{x\in\mathbb R^n: |x|\le R\}$ and $f:B\to \mathbb R^m$, then for any point $x_0$ domain of $f$ we can define that the derivative of $f$ at $x_0$ means a linear mapping $T$ such that $$ f(x) = f(x_0) + T(x-x_0) + o(x-x_0) $$ for $x\to x_0$ and $x\in B$.
Even at the boundary points of $B$, there are neighborhoods of the ball that are rich enough that the derivative is unique if it exists. (All that's needed for this is that every neighborhood of $x_0$ relative to $B$ contains points whose difference from $x_0$ span $\mathbb R^n$).
The reason why textbooks often don't do this is that most of what they want to say can be said quite fine while restricting our attention to open domains, and doing so is quite a bit simpler -- there are (literally!) fewer edge cases that need to be considered when stating the results.
For one example of one such corner case, consider the function $$ f(x,y) = \begin{cases} 0 & \text{if } y < x \\ 0 & \text{if } y > 4x \\ 0 & \text{if } x = y = 0 \\ 1 & \text{if } 2x < y < 3x \\ \text{undefined} & \text{otherwise} \end{cases} $$ whose partial derivatives exist and are continuous (indeed identically $0$) everywhere in the domain of $f$, but $f$ is not even continuous at $(0,0)$.