Say I have a 2D array of $x$ by $y$ points with some default value, for generalisation we'll just say "0".
I randomly select a pair of coordinates with a frequency of $f$ per second and, if the point selected is 0: flip it to 1. However, if the point is already $1$ then do not change it.
How then, given a known $x$ and $y$ (thus known total points as $xy$) can I calculate a frequency $f$ that will leave me with approximately (as this is random) $n$ 0 points remaining, after a set time $t$? Where $t$ is also seconds.
For some context I am attempting some simplistic approximation of nuclear half-life but I'm not sure how to make use of the half-life equation for this, nor do I think that it is strictly correct to apply it given my implementation isn't exactly true to life, picking single points at a time.
Let's start with $n_1$ points are $0$'s at the start, and end when there are $n_2$ $0$'s, where $n_1>n_2$
We will compute the expected number of flips to turn all of them to 1. Then calculate the frequency.
For the first pick, you can select any of the $0$'s. There are $n_1$ such points. You can do this w.p $\mathbb P[\text{select a 0 point}] = \frac{n_1}{xy}$. The expected number of flips to then flip a $0$ is then $\frac{1}{\mathbb P[\text{select a 0 point}] } = \frac{xy}{n_1}$
For the second pick you can select any of the $n_1-1$ points. Therefore the probability is $\frac{n_1-1}{xy}$ that you select a $0$. Then the expected number of attempts to flip a $0$ is equal to $\frac{xy}{n_1-1}$ to select such a point. We continue like this till we are left with $n_2$ 0's.
At this point, the probability of secting this point is $\frac{n_2+1}{xy}$, and the expected number of flips to flip a $0$ is $\frac{xy}{n_2+1}$
Therefore the total expected number of attempts to pick all points is \begin{align*} \text{number of attempts} &=\frac{xy} {n_1}+\frac{xy} {n_1-1}+\frac{xy} {n_1-2}+\dots+\frac{xy}{n_2+1}\\ &=xy\left(\frac{1} {n_1}+\frac{1} {n_1-1}+\frac{1} {n_1-2}+\dots++\frac{1}{n_2+1} \right)\\ &=xy\cdot [H(n_1)-H(n_2)] \end{align*} where $H(n_1)$ is the $n_1$'th harmonic number
If you have a fixed time $t$, then you get frequency, as \begin{align*} \text{freq}\times\text{time}=\text{number of attempts}\\ \text{freq}=\frac{xy[H(n_1)-H(n_2)]}{t}\\ \end{align*} You can approximate this using the $\log$ function $$\text{freq}\simeq\frac{xy}{t}\log\left(\frac{n_1}{n_2}\right)$$
EDIT: This is an instance of the Coupon Collector Problem as pointed out in the comments