Let $(X_1,\tau_1)$ and $(X_2,\tau_2)$ be topological spaces. Prove that $(X_1,\tau_1)\times(X_2,\tau_2)\cong (X_2,\tau_2)\times(X_1,\tau_1) $.
This is a weird exercise once I can visualize there is a swap of the axis between the two spaces which keeps the spaces being homeomorphic. But I cannot conceive a proof of the statement.
Question:
How should I prove the statement?
Thanks in advance!
Then the swapping map $s(x,y)=(y,x)$ is clearly a bijection (the same formula defines the inverse as well) and $\pi_1 \circ s= \pi_2$ and $\pi_2 \circ s =\pi_1$ so $s$ is continuous (projections are always continuous in the product topology) and the same reasoning can be held for the inverse. So $s$ and its inverse are continuous, and we are done.