I just learned to determine wether $f(x)=x^2$ is injective or surjective but how can I solve this when there are two variables? I've been struggling to get my head around this. I know that for a function to be injective the following condition must be met: $()≠()$ implies $≠$, or the contrapositive. Surjective: $∀ ∈ , ∃ ∈ \text{ such that } f(x) = y$.
How could I scale these definitions to handle two variables? $(,) = x^2$ mapping from $\Bbb R \times \Bbb R$ to $\Bbb R$
Edit: I want to thank you all for your time and help. It's greatly appreciated! I can clearly see through these problems now.
Let $f$ be the following function \begin{align} f \colon \mathbb{R} \times \mathbb{R} & \to \mathbb{R}\\ (x,y) & \mapsto x^2 \end{align} for all $(x,y) \in \mathbb{R}^2.$
Sketch of the proof. Given a function $f$ we want to be able to show if $f$ is or not injective and if $f$ is or not surjective.
First, let’s recall a couple of definitions.
What does it mean to say that $f$ is injective?
And what does it mean to say that $f$ is surjective?
Solving. Let’s start by verifying if $f$ is or not injective.
Let $0,1 \in \mathbb{R}.$ Then $(0,0),(0,1) \in \mathbb{R}^2.$ Since $0 \neq 1,$ then $(0,0) \neq (0,1).$ By definition of $f$ It follows that $$f(0,0) = 0 ^2 = 0 = 0^2 = f(0,1).$$ Hence, $$\exists x,y,z,w \in \mathbb{R} \colon f(x,y) = f(z,w) \wedge (x,y) \neq (z,w).$$ But this is precisely the negation of $(1).$ So $f$ does not satisfies the condition $(1).$ Therefore, $f$ is not injective.
Now, let’s see if $f$ is or not surjective.
Since the domain of $f$ is $\mathbb{R}^2,$ note that for all $(x,y) \in \mathbb{R}^2$ we have that $x \in \mathbb{R}$ and, hence, $x^2 \geq 0.$ Then, $f(x,y) \geq 0$ for all $(x,y) \in \mathbb{R}^2.$ Which means that $\not\exists (x,y) \in \mathbb{R}^2 \colon f(x,y) < 0.$
This tells us that the condition $(2)$ is not satisfied by this function $f.$ Therefore, $f$ is not surjective.
(Also, note that $f$ is not injective.)