Let $(X,d)$ be a complete metric space, and $x_{n} , y_{n}$ be sequences in $X$ such that $d(x_{n},x_{n+1}) \leq \frac{1}{n^2} , d(y_{n},y_{n+1}) \leq \frac{1}{n}$
then does $(x_{n}) , (y_{n})$ sequence converge?
Suppose they converge, that is $x_{n} \rightarrow x , y_{n} \rightarrow y$ and since $X$ is complete so $x,y \in X$.
Using triangle inequality I got $d(x_{n},x) \leq \sum \frac{1}{n^2} = \frac{\pi^2}{6}$ but I cannot also say that they tend to zero?
and also $d(y_{n},y) \leq \sum \frac{1}{n}$
How taking Cauchy sequence will help?
But i also think that $\frac{1}{n^2} \leq \frac{1}{n}$.So we also have $d(x_{n},x) \leq \sum \frac{1}{n^2} \leq \sum \frac{1}{n}$.
$d(x_{m},x_{n})\leq d(x_{m},x_{m-1})+\cdots+d(x_{n+1},x_{n})\leq\dfrac{1}{m^{2}}+\cdots+\dfrac{1}{n^{2}}<\displaystyle\sum_{k\geq n}\dfrac{1}{k^{2}}$ for $m>n$. As $\displaystyle\sum_{k\geq n}\dfrac{1}{k^{2}}\rightarrow 0$, $n\rightarrow\infty$, so $\{x_{n}\}$ is Cauchy and hence converges by the completeness.