I am trying to prove sort of a converse to open mapping theorem. If $X, Y$ are normed linear spaces where $X$ is complete, and $T \in B(X, Y)$ is open, onto then I have to show Y is complete. I came across this answer here: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1446979/698050 and my doubt is the following:
I have proved the proposition that is mentioned, it says $∀y ∈ Y$ there is an $x \in T^{−1}(y)$ such that $∥x∥_X ≤ C ∥y∥_Y$.
But now to prove pullback of a Cauchy sequence in $Y$ is Cauchy in $X$, say I have $x_n$ and $x_m$ in $X$ having their norms bounded by corresponding $C||y_n||$ and $C||y_m||$. This does not imply $||x_n - x_m|| \le C||y_n - y_m||$ as we can have some other $x \in X$ satisfying the proposition for $(y_n - y_m)$. How do I conclude the sequence in $X$ is Cauchy then?
Hint for a different approach: Define $S:X|Ker (T) \to Y$ by $S(x+Ker(T))=Tx$. Verify that $S$ is also an open map. It is also an injective continuous linear map, so it is an isomorphism. Since $X|M$ is complete for any close subspace $M$ of $X$ it follows that $X|Ker (T)$ is complete. Since an isomorphic image of any complete space is complete we are done.