Problem: Let $X,Y \sim N(0,1)$ independent random variables.
Which is the distribution of $W = \frac X Y$?
Attempt: Something wierd happens. In fact $$ \mathbb P\left(\frac X Y \leq c\right) = \mathbb P(X -cY \leq 0) = \mathbb P(N(0,c^2+1) \leq 0)= \frac 1 2 $$ which is quite impossible. What's wrong?
The region of the plane in which $X/Y\le c$ is that in which $X\le cY$ if $Y>0$ and $X\ge cY$ if $Y<0.$ In polar coordinates, half of that region is described by $\pi > \theta > \arctan (1/c),$ if $c>0,$ and the other half has the same probability assigned to it, so let's double the probability assigned to the case $Y>0.$
The probability measure is $\displaystyle \frac 1 {2\pi} e^{-(x^2+y^2)/2} \, dx \, dy.$ In polar coordinates that becomes $\displaystyle \frac 1 {2\pi} e^{-r^2/2} r\,dr\,d\theta.$ Therefore $$ \Pr\left( \frac X Y \le c \right) = \frac 1 {2\pi} \int_{\arctan(1/c)}^\pi \int_0^\infty e^{-r^2/2} r\,dr\,d\theta = \frac 1 \pi \left(\pi - \arctan\frac 1 c \right). $$ Differentiating with respect to $c,$ we get the density: $$ \frac 1 {\pi(1+c^2)}, $$ i.e. this is a standard Cauchy distribution.