I just wanted to confirm some stuff with you regarding ideals, rings and the Zorn Lemma:
Given that
1) A right ideal of any ring automatically is a left ideal of its opposite ring
and
2) that every nonzero ring has a maximal right ideal (by Kuratowski-Zorn’s lemma),
Is it fair to conclude that the maximal right ideal of a nonzero ring is the maximal left ideal of its opposite?
If so, could you illustrate it with the example of a quadratic 2x2 matrix with zero entries in the bottom row?
I suggest you do the following:
First, show that if $I$ is a left ideal in a ring $R$, then $I$ (the exact same set) is a right ideal in the opposite ring $R^{\mathrm{op}}$.
Next, show that if $I$ is a maximal left ideal in a ring $R$, then $I$ is a maximal right ideal in the opposite ring $R^{\mathrm{op}}$.
It follows from this that the set of maximal left ideals in a ring $R$ is exactly the same set as the set of maximal right ideals in the opposite ring $R^{\mathrm{op}}$.