I’ve been computing for some values of the sum and it seems that:
$$ \sum_{k=n+1}^\infty \frac{1}{k^2} < \frac{1}{n} $$
But I’m not sure how to prove it… I tried induction but it doesn’t work… is there any other way?
This has to do in specific with the solution of Durrett’s book of probability: exercise 2.2.4
Without using integral, there's the classical trick:
$$\frac{1}{k^2} < \frac{1}{k(k - 1)} = \frac{1}{k - 1} - \frac{1}{k}.$$
Summing up gives what you want.