Suppose that $\left\{B\left(t\right): t \geq 0\right\}$ is a Brownian motion and $U$ is an independent random variable, which is uniformly distributed on $\left[0,1\right]$. Then the process $\left\{\tilde{B}\left(t\right): t \geq 0\right\}$ defined by $$ \tilde{B}\left(t\right) := \begin{cases} B\left(t\right), & \textrm{if } t \neq U, \\0, & \textrm{if } t = U \end{cases} $$ has the same finite-dimensional distributions as a Brownian motion, but is discontinuous if $B\left(U\right) \neq 0$, i.e. with probability one, and hence this process is not a Brownian motion.
This is Example 1.2, p. 8, from Mörters & Peres's "Brownian Motion" (the version that's available on Peres's website).
I don't understand why the event $\left\{B\left(U\right) \neq 0\right\}$ has probability one. I'll appreciate any help.
$$P(B(U)=0)=\int_0^1P(B(u)=0)\,\mathrm du=0$$