I know this question looks dumb... but I'm going to ask it anyway because I'm really confused.
Let's say that getting a flush in a poker game is 7%, and then I get it. After this, suppose that the dealer shuffle the deck "perfectly", like, making all the 52 cards having the same probability to be taken by anyone. After this "perfect shuffle", is the chance of me getting another flush 7%?
The answer is yes. With perfect shuffling, the probability of getting a flush in your next hand is the same whether you got a flush in your previous hand or you didn't get a flush in your previous hand, and it's the same for every hand. (This probability is quite a bit smaller than 7% though. I've seen it calculated as 0.2%.)
What might be confusing you is that the probability of getting two flushes in a row is (much) smaller than the probability of getting a flush in the next hand given you already got a flush in your previous hand.
Put another way, the fact that you just got a flush greatly increases your overall chances of getting two flushes in a row (you just need one more!), in much the same way that flipping 99 heads in a row greatly increases your chances of flipping 100 heads in a row (again, you just need one more!) compared to the overall probability of flipping 100 heads in a row (almost impossible!).
Does that address your confusion, or was it something else?