Given a positive integer $n$ we denote $B = \{0,1\}^n$. I conjecture that for any $f:B^2\to B$,
If there exists $g,h:B^2\to B$ s.t. for all $x,y$ in $B$, $g(f(x,y),x)=y$ and $h(f(x,y),y)=x$, then there exists $u,v:B\to B$ s.t. $f = (x,y)\mapsto u(v(x)\oplus y)$.
Note: $\oplus$ denote the bitwise xor.
A bit of context: I was trying to prove the noisy channel coding theorem in a different way than the classical ones using AEP or the error exponents and this would fill the last gap but I am a bit stuck with it and also maybe a bit tired/lazy (I am neither a student nor mathematician). It may very well be wrong but then a counterexample would be interesting. Any hint/help in comments appreciated. :)
Simple example: If you take $f = \oplus$ then $g = h = \oplus$ and $u = v = id_B$ works.
Following Alex's hint in the comments, here's a quick proof by sage that this conjecture fails.
We work with $B = \{ 00, 01, 10, 11 \}$. We write $f(x,y) = x+y$ for addition mod $4$ (in the obvious way), and we let $g(x,y) = h(x,y) = x-y$ (also computed mod $4$). Then notice
So we want to know if there are functions $u,v : B \to B$ so that
$$f(x,y) = x+y \ \% \ 4 = u(v(x) \oplus y)$$
We could be smart about this, and "do math", but there are only $4^4 = 256$ functions $B \to B$... So there are $256^2$ many $(u,v)$ pairs to try...
This code (which you can play with yourself in an online sage interpreter, for instance here) never prints anything but the count. So, if you trust it, then $f$ cannot be written as $u(v(x) \oplus y)$ for any $u, v : B \to B$. Contrary to the conjecture.
I hope this helps ^_^