Suppose $X_1,\ldots,X_n$ are i.i.d. continuous random variables with a common density $g$ and support $G=\{x:g(x)>0\}$. Let $$ Y=\frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^nX_i. $$ It seems intuitive that $Y$ should have some density $f$ but how I prove that some such $f$ exists please? And does $f$ have the same support $G$ as $g$?
Proofs of course are welcomed but you don't have to give proofs if you can point me to references that contain the proofs. I'm particularly interested in books (easier to read than articles) that discuss the relationship between $g$ and $f$ (if the latter exists.) Thank you!
Density of a sum is convolution of densities $$f_{X_1+X_2}(z)=\int f_{X_1}(y)f_{X_2}(z-y)dy$$ To see why support of $Y$ doesn't have to be $G$, consider $X_i=Binomial(1,1/2)+Uniform(-\epsilon,\epsilon)$ for $\epsilon<1/3$. Then $Y$ has non-zero density on the neighborhood of $1/2$ for even $n$ while density of $X$ is zero on that neighborhood. In general, the union of supports of all $Y_n$ is convex hull of $G$.