Given a $R$-module homomorphism $f \colon M\rightarrow N$, I want to show that the three following properties are equivalent:
- $f \colon M \rightarrow N$ is surjective.
- $f_\mathfrak{p}\colon M_\mathfrak{p} \rightarrow N_\mathfrak{p}$ is surjective for all $\mathfrak{p} \in \operatorname{Spec}(R)$.
- $f_\mathfrak{m}\colon M_\mathfrak{m} \rightarrow N_\mathfrak{m}$ is surjective for all $\mathfrak{m} \in \operatorname{Spm}(R)$.
My thoughts: if we assume 1), then for any multiplicative subset $S$ of $R$, we have that $$ \mathrm{id}_{S^{-1}R} \otimes_R f \colon S^{-1}R \otimes_R M \rightarrow S^{-1}R \otimes_R N $$
is surjective since the tensor product is right-exact.
Then, using that $S^{-1}R \otimes_R M \cong S^{-1}M$, $S^{-1}R \otimes_R N \cong S^{-1}N$, and taking $S:=R \setminus \mathfrak{p}$ and $S:=R \setminus \mathfrak{m}$, we should have 1) $\rightarrow$ 2) and 1) $\rightarrow$ 3) respectively? Not sure if my reasoning is correct. Also 2) should imply 3) since maximal ideals are prime…
Some help/hints would be appreciated for the other implications.
Your proof of $1)\to2) $ is correct. So we only should proof $3)\to 1)$.
First you take cokernel $\operatorname{Coker}(f)$, we have exact sequence
Then we take localization at maximal ideals ${\frak m}$, by (3) we have that $(\operatorname{Coker}(f))_{\frak m}=0$ for all $\frak{m}$. But this means $\operatorname{Coker}(f)=0$ because of the following lemma.
proof. If $M\neq 0$ we take non $0$ element $m\in M$. Then $Ann(x)\subset R$ is not $(1)$, there is a maximal ideal ${\frak m}$ which contains $Ann(x)$. But because of $x=0\in M_{\frak m}$, there is an elements $s\notin {\frak m}$ s.t.$sx=0$ which is contradiction of $Ann(x)\subset {\frak m}$.