It is well known that the Brownian motion $B=(B_t)_{t\ge 0}$ is a martingale with respect to its natural filtration $\mathscr{F}_t$ and the fixed probability measure $\mathbb{P}$, i.e. $$\mathbb{E}(B_t|\mathscr{F}_s)=B_s,\quad s\ge t$$
Now we limit the $t$ in the interval $[0,1]$ and enlarge the filtration with $\sigma(B_1)$ being added into each $\mathscr{F}_t$, $t\in[0,1]$, i.e.$$\tilde{\mathscr{F}_t}:=\sigma(\mathscr{F}_t \cup \sigma(B_1)) ,\quad t\in[0,1].$$
My question is how to calculte $\mathbb{E}(B_t|\tilde{\mathscr{F}}_s)$ $~$ for $~$ $0\le s\le t <1$ ? Someone says the result is $\mathbb{E}(B_t|\tilde{\mathscr{F}}_s)=\frac{1-t}{1-s}B_s + \frac{t-s}{1-s} B_1$ but I don't know why and cannot verify it.
I had been stuck by this question for two days long and had no idea.
If you know how to solve it , please do not hesitate to help me.
I am looking forward to your answers!
That's a cool question. Intuitively, if you know your Brownian up to time $s$ and at time $1$, then conditional on what you know, the gap between $s$ and $1$ is filled by a Brownian bridge (see "general case" in https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Brownian_bridge ). So $E(B_t \mid \widetilde {\mathcal F}_s) = B_s + \frac{t-s}{1-s}(B_1 - B_S)$.