I am trying to answer the following question:
Let $A$ be a $3\times 3$ real matrix and $A^4=I$ and $A\neq \pm I$,then does it imply $A^2+I=O$?
Attempt: Since $A$ is $3\times 3$ real matrix,it has at least one eigenvalue $c\in \mathbb R$.Then $(x-c)|m(x)$,where $m$ is the minimal polynomial of $A$.Now,$A^2+I=O$ implies $x^2+1$ annihilates $A$ and hence $m(x)| x^2+1$ but then $(x-c)$ must be a factor of $(x^2+1)$ and hence $c$ must be a root of $x^2+1$ which is not possible as $c\in \mathbb R$.
Is this solution alright?
Our OP Kishalay Sarkar's demonstration looks fine to me; here's a somewhat similar and perhaps shorter argument:
Note that
$A^2 + I = 0 \tag 1$
implies that any eigevalue $\mu$ of $A$ satisfies
$\mu^2 + 1 = 0, \tag 2$
since
$Av = \mu v, \tag 3$
where
$v \ne 0 \tag 4$
is some $3$-vector, yields
$(\mu^2 + 1)v = \mu(\mu v) + v = \mu Av + v = A(\mu v) + v$ $= A(Av) + v = A^2v + Iv = (A^2 + I)v = 0, \tag 5$
which in light of (4) implies
$\mu^2 + 1 = 0; \tag 6$
but any $3 \times 3$ real matrix has at least one real eigenvalue, for its characteristic polynomial is a real cubic; thus (2) is impossible for some $\mu$ obeying (3); this contradiction in turn implies that (1) cannot bind.
Nota Bene: Observe the condition
$A^4 + I = 0 \tag 7$
is not needed in the above proof, nor is it used by Kishalay Sarkar. Similar remarks apply to the hypothesis
$A \ne \pm I. \tag 8$
Indeed, the essential assertion here is perhaps the more comprehensive:
Let $A$ be a real $n \times n$ matrix, where $n \in \Bbb N$ is odd; then
$A^2 + I \ne 0. \tag 9$
The proof may easily be generalized from what has been done above. End of Note.