i am taking a derivatives class, and what is of course obligatory is to derive the Black Scholes formula. I am simply stuck or puzzled by one simple thing in the derivation:
How do they get from $$exp(y-\frac{(y-logS_0 - (r - 1/2 \sigma^2)T)^2}{2\sigma^2 T})$$
to
$$S_0e^{rT} exp(-\frac{(y-logS_0 - (r + 1/2 \sigma^2)T)^2}{2\sigma^2 T})$$
For the equation to be true, using the property that $\exp(a+b)=\exp(a)\exp(b)$,
it is true if
$$\exp(y)=S_o\exp(rT)$$
That is if $y$ is defined to be the logarithm of the value after time $T$ with interest rate $r$.
That is there must be a relationship between $y$ and $S, r,T$.