As part of a larger problem, I'm trying to show that
$$m!=\sum_{i=0}^n{(-1)^i\frac{(n+m+1)!}{(i+m+1)(n-i)!i!}}$$
I've tried to see if any of the factorials can be simplified with one another, but even if I did I don't understand how the sum would simplify.
I have tested some values to check that there is no simple telescoping or anything.
Any help would be much appreciated.
We have that
$$\frac{(n+m+1)!}{(i+m+1)(n-i)!i!}=\binom{n}{i}\frac{(n+m+1)!}{(i+m+1)n!}$$
and then
$$m!=\sum_{i=0}^n{(-1)^i\frac{(n+m+1)!}{(i+m+1)(n-i)!i!}} \iff \frac{m!n!}{(n+m+1)!}=\sum_{i=0}^n (-1)^i\frac{\binom{n}{i}}{i+m+1}$$
which can be proved as shown in the related