Starting from the definition of the Gamma function as expressed by
$$\Gamma(z)=\int_0^\infty x^{z-1}e^{-x}\,dx\tag1$$
we can show that the derivative of $\Gamma(z)$ evaluated at $z=1/2$ is given by
$$\Gamma'(1/2)=-\sqrt{\pi} \left(\gamma+\log(4)\right)\tag2$$
Proof of $(2)$: Here, I present for completeness the approach that I took. One can skip this part without losing context.
Differentiating $(1)$ and setting $z=1/2$ reveals
$$\Gamma'(1/2)=\int_0^\infty \frac{e^{-x}}{\sqrt{x}}\log(x)\,dx\tag3$$
Next, we represent the logarithm function in $(3)$ by a Frullani integral to find that
$$\begin{align} \Gamma'(1/2)&=\int_0^\infty \frac{e^{-x}}{\sqrt{x}}\int_0^\infty \frac{e^{-y}-e^{-xy}}{y}\,dy\,dx\\\\ &=\int_0^\infty \frac1y\int_0^\infty \frac{e^{-x}e^{-y}-e^{-(y+1)x}}{\sqrt{x}}\,dx\,dy\\\\ &=\sqrt\pi\int_0^\infty \frac1y \left(e^{-y}-\frac1{\sqrt{y+1}}\right)\,dy\tag4 \end{align}$$
Integrating by parts the integral on the right-hand side of $(4)$, we obtain
$$\Gamma'(1/2)=-\sqrt\pi(\gamma+\log(4))\tag5$$
as was to be shown.
QUESTION: So, what are alternative approaches to evaluating $\Gamma'(1/2)$ if we begin with $(1)$?
Since $\Gamma'(x)=\Gamma(x)\psi(x)$ the determination of $\Gamma'(1/2)$ immediately boils down to the determination of $\psi(1/2)$. Since $$ \sum_{n\geq 0}\left(\frac{1}{n+a}-\frac{1}{n+b}\right)=\psi(a)-\psi(b)$$ and $\psi(1)=-\gamma$ by the Weierstrass product for the $\Gamma$ function, we may just pick $a=\frac{1}{2}$, $b=1$ and compute $$ \psi(1/2)+\gamma=\sum_{n\geq 0}\left(\frac{2}{2n+1}-\frac{2}{2n+2}\right)=2\sum_{m\geq 1}\frac{(-1)^{m+1}}{m}=-2\log 2 $$ to deduce $$ \Gamma'(1/2) = \Gamma(1/2)\psi(1/2) = \sqrt{\pi}\psi(1/2) = -\sqrt{\pi}(\gamma+\log 4)$$ without invoking Frullani.
Conversely,
$$\begin{eqnarray*} \gamma=\lim_{n\to +\infty}(H_n-\log n) &=& \sum_{n\geq 1}\left(\frac{1}{n}-\log\left(1+\frac{1}{n}\right)\right)\\&\stackrel{\text{Frullani}}{=}&\sum_{n\geq 1}\int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-nx}-\frac{e^{-nx}-e^{-(n+1)x}}{x}\,dx\\&=&\int_{0}^{+\infty}\left(\frac{1}{e^x-1}-\frac{1}{x e^x}\right)\,dx\\&\stackrel{\color{red}{\text{Devil}}}{=}&-\int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-x}\log(x)\,dx=-\Gamma'(1)\end{eqnarray*} $$ where the marked equality is justified by this:
$$ \int_{0}^{M}\left(\frac{1}{e^x-1}-\frac{1}{x}\right)\,dx = \log(1-e^{-M})-\log M$$ $$ \int_{0}^{M}\frac{1-e^{-x}}{x}\,dx\stackrel{\text{IBP}}{=}(1-e^{-M})\log M-\int_{0}^{M}e^{-x}\log(x)\,dx. $$
At this point we have
$$ \mathcal{L}\log(x) = -\frac{\gamma+\log(s)}{s},\qquad \mathcal{L}^{-1}\frac{1}{\sqrt{x}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi s}}$$ hence by the self-adjointness of the Laplace transform
$$ \Gamma'(1/2)=\int_{0}^{+\infty}e^{-x}\log(x)\frac{dx}{\sqrt{x}}=-\frac{1}{\sqrt{\pi}}\int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{\gamma+\log(s+1)}{(s+1)\sqrt{s}}\,ds $$
where
$$ \int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{ds}{(s+1)\sqrt{s}}=2\int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{ds}{s^2+1}=\pi $$ and $$ \int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{\log(s+1)}{(s+1)\sqrt{s}}\,ds = 2\int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{\log(1+s^2)}{1+s^2}\,ds = -4\int_{0}^{\pi/2}\log\cos\theta\,d\theta =\pi\log 4.$$