I am trying to understand the proof of Proposition 1.2 from Gregor Kemper's "A Course in Commutative Algebra", which says that if $\varphi: A \rightarrow B$ is a homomorphism of the algebras $A,B$ over the field $K$ and if $B$ is an affine $K$-algebra and $\mathfrak{m}$ is a maximal ideal in $B$, then $\varphi^{-1}(\mathfrak{m})$ is a maximal ideal in $A$.
The step I'm having trouble with is when he uses Lemma 1.1,(b), which he proves previously and which states that an if an algebra $A$ over a field $K$ is itself a field and also $A$ is contained in an affine $K$-domain, then $A$ must be algebraic over $K$. This lemma is used for the $K$-algebra $B/\mathfrak{m}$ to conclude that $B/\mathfrak{m}$ is algebraic over $K$. I know that $B/\mathfrak{m}$ is a field because $\mathfrak{m}$ is maximal. But why is $B/\mathfrak{m}$ contained in an affine $K$-domain? Which is this finitely generated $K$-domain or how do we know $B$ is contained in one?
(A similar question was asked here for prime ideals instead of maximals, but got no answer.)
$B/\mathfrak{m}$ itself is an affine $K$-domain. It is finitely generated as a $K$-algebra since $B$ is finitely generated as a $K$-algebra. It is a domain since it is a field.