I have been struggling with breaking down this logic problem with the use of resolution method. Below is what i have done. I feel it is incorrect and humbly need your assistance. Thanks
Problem: ∃x(p(x) → q(x)) → ¬∀xp(x) |= ∃x ¬p(x)
What i have done.
¬∀xp(x)
∃x¬p(x)
¬p(a)
∃x(¬p(x) ∨ q(x)) → ∀xp(x)
¬∃x(¬p(x) ∨ q(x)) ∨ ∀xp(x)
∀x¬(¬p(x) ∨ q(x)) ∨ ∀xp(x)
∀x (p(x) ∧ ¬q(x)) ∨ ∀xp(x)
∀x∀y(p(x) ∧ ¬q(x)) ∨ p(y))
(p(x) ∧ ¬q(x)) ∨ p(y)
(p(x) ∨ p(y)) ∧ (¬q(x) ∨ p(y))
p(x), p(y) ←, p(y)←q(x), ← p(a)
p(x), p(y) ←, ← p(a)
p(y) ←, ← p(a)
←
Let $p(x)\equiv x=x$ and $q(x)\equiv x\ne x$. Then clearly $p(x)\to q(x)$ is false for all $x$, i.e., there is no $x$ with $p(x)\to q(x)$, i.e., $\exists x(p(x)\to q(x))$ is false, hence $\exists x(p(x)\to q(x))\to\text{whatever}$ is true. You will however hardly be able to prove $\exists x\neg p(x)$.