Can someone explain why in distributions:
- $ \operatorname{Binomial}(n,p)\approx \operatorname{Normal}(np, np(1-p))$
- $ \operatorname{Binomial}(n,p) \approx \operatorname{Poisson}(np)$
2026-04-03 07:19:01.1775200741
Approximation Distributions
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It's the result of the Central limit Theorem in the version of De Moivre - Laplace
It's the limit distribution of a binomial when $p=\lambda/n$