My research requires to approximate an integral that involves an error function. The integral is, $$ \int_{0}^{\infty}\operatorname{erfc}\left(\sqrt{\dfrac ax}\right)\cos(bx)\,dx. \tag{1} $$
I found two formulas that are very similar to above integral (Ng and Geller, 1968), $$ \int_{0}^{\infty}\operatorname{erfc}\left(\sqrt{\dfrac ax}\right)\sin(bx)\,dx=\frac{1}{b}\exp\left[-(2ab)^{1/2}\right]\cos\left[(2ab)^{1/2}\right], \tag{2} $$ $$ \int_{0}^{\infty}\operatorname{erf}\left(\sqrt{\dfrac ax}\right)\cos(bx)\,dx=\frac{1}{b}\exp\left[-(2ab)^{1/2}\right]\sin\left[(2ab)^{1/2}\right].\tag{3} $$
I am trying to represent equation (1) as a product of exponential and trigonometric functions, which is very important for my following work, but I didn't figure it out how the equations (2) and (3) are obtained. I really appreciate for any help from you. Thanks in advance.
Reference: Ng, E.W., Geller, M., (1968) A table of integrals of the error functions, journal of research of the national bureau of standards, 73B, 1.
Not really a full answer, but too long for a comment. If I try to numerically integrate your (1) in Mathematica with
and compare with the 'exact' result, I get agreement (the value is $-0.0350084...$) between the two.
BUT
Mathematica gives me a flag:
Such flag is not given when computing the same integral with $\mathrm{erf}$, instead of $\mathrm{erfc}$.
Now, the more I look at it, the more indeed your integral (1) looks divergent to me. There are a number of red flags:
None of this is a smoking gun per se, but my feeling is that (1) is divergent (as well as its sine version), and the paper you quote has a number of typos (except perhaps not the typo I thought it had in a comment I left earlier underneath your question!) - while similar integrals with $\mathrm{erf}$ are convergent (both in their sine and cosine version).
In terms of proving any assertion about such integrals, maybe an approach worth attempting is to write your (1) (or its $\mathrm{erf}$ version) as $$ \mathrm{Re}\int_{0}^{\infty}\operatorname{erfc}\left(\sqrt{\dfrac ax}\right)\exp(\mathrm{i}bx)\,dx\ , $$ and then try integration by parts (the $\mathrm{erfc}$ has a 'nice' derivative, while $\exp(\mathrm{i}bx)$ has a nice antiderivative). This should conclusively prove whether my hunch is correct (no time to do it myself now, though...).