My argument is that $\{1\}$ is a connected clopen subspace of $[0, 1]$ while the only connected subspaces of $[0, 1)$ are singular sets, which are not open in $[0, 1)$, so the spaces must not be homeomorphic. Is this reasoning correct?
Is there another argument that does not need require to test connectedness?
Thank you!
Your argument is correct, but you can just say that $[0,1]$ has a clopen singleton (which is $\{1\}$), whereas $[0,1)$ has none.