The question might be trivial, but I would like someone to correct me or confirm it.
I know that the Normal (Gaussian) distribution is completely determined by its mean and variance, but does that hold for any other distribution? I assume that the answer is no. I could notice this is true for many distributions, but there are some exceptions. For example, mean and variance are undefined for the Cauchy distribution.
Fix $m \in \mathbb{R}$ and $\sigma^2>0$. For any $p \in (0,1]$, define random variable $X$ by $$X = \left\{ \begin{array}{ll} m &\mbox{ with prob $1-p$} \\ m+ \frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{p}} & \mbox{ with prob $p/2$} \\ m-\frac{\sigma}{\sqrt{p}} & \mbox{ with prob $p/2$} \end{array} \right.$$ Then $X$ has mean $m$ and variance $\sigma^2$. The probability distribution for $X$ is different for each $p \in (0,1]$. Hence, there are an infinite number of probability distributions that give rise to mean $m$ and variance $\sigma^2$.