Could someone explain to me why the following holds?
$$ \frac{\text{Area of sector}}{\text{Area of circle}} = \frac{\theta}{2\pi} $$
When deriving the area of a sector my book just quotes the above but doesn't explain why it holds. Could someone explain?
Also, a similar argument is used when deriving arc length, which I don't understand.
By the way, I know that $\theta$ is the angle subtended by the arc and $2\pi$ is the angle in a full circle.
How does the ratio of the areas make it equivalent to the ratio of their angles?
This is more intuitive than axiomatic. If you cut a pie into $n$ equal pieces then each piece will have the following properties.
Thus, the quantities angle, area and length will be $\frac{1}{n}$ of $2\pi$, the area of the circle and the circumference of the circle, respectively.
Using this we can derive the usual formulas:
$A = \frac{\pi r^2}{n}=\pi r^2\frac{\theta}{2\pi}=\frac{r^2\theta}{2}$
$L = \frac{2\pi r}{n}=2\pi r \frac{\theta}{2\pi}=r\theta$