Find the small solution of $$y''-y\left ( 1-y^{2} \right )=0 \text{ with } y\left ( 0 \right )=\epsilon \ll 1$$
Making a pun, I decided that $$y^{3}\left ( 0 \right )\ll y\left ( 0 \right )$$ so neglect $$y^{3}\left ( 0 \right )$$ This gives $$y''_{0}-y_{0}=0$$
The general solution is $$c_{1}e^{-x}+c_{2}e^{x}$$ but I shall drop the non-decaying term to obtain $$c_{2}e^{-x}$$
$$y_{0}=\epsilon e^{-x}$$
obviously, the solution y has the form $$y=y_{0}+y_{1} $$where $$y_{0}\gg y_{1}$$
Substituting $$y=y_{0}+y_{1}$$ into the original equation I do not arrive at what my text states.
I desparately need a leg up to bridge this gap.
The whole numerical and asymptotic approach to me is extremely'fuzzy'
Thanks in advance
We're going to substitute $y=y_0 + y_1$ into the differential equation then throw away most (but not too many) of the smallest terms. This last part is a bit tricky but it will start to make more sense as you become more familiar with it.
So, suppose that $y = y_0 + y_1$ where $y_1 \ll y_0$ (and $y_0$ is small as well). Substituting this into the equation
$$ 0 = y'' - y(1-y^2) $$
yields
$$ \begin{align} 0 &= (y_0 + y_1)'' - (y_0 + y_1) \Bigl[ 1 - (y_0 + y_1)^2 \Bigr] \\ &= (y_0 + y_1)'' - (y_0 + y_1) \Bigl[ 1 - y_0^2 - 2y_0y_1 - y_1^2 \Bigr]. \tag{1} \end{align} $$
Let's look inside of the brackets first, since there are a lot of very small terms there. The term $y_0^2$ is small since $y_0$ is small, but then $2y_0y_1$ is even smaller since $y_1 \ll y_0$, and thus $y_1^2$ is smaller still. We could throw all of these away, but then we would be left with the equation
$$ 0 = (y_0 + y_1)'' - (y_0 + y_1) $$
which is exactly the one we solved to find $y_0$. Since throwing all three of the small terms away doesn't give us any more information than we already have, let's try keeping the largest of them. Again, we know that
$$ y_0^2 \gg 2y_0y_1 \gg y_1^2, $$
so let's only keep $y_0^2$. Equation $(1)$ is then approximated by
$$ 0 \approx (y_0 + y_1)'' - (y_0 + y_1) \Bigl[ 1 - y_0^2 \Bigr], \tag{2} $$
and now we simplify a little:
$$ \begin{align} 0 &\approx (y_0 + y_1)'' - (y_0 + y_1) \Bigl[ 1 - y_0^2 \Bigr] \\ &= y_0'' + y_1'' - y_0 - y_1 + y_0^3 + y_0^2y_1 \\ &= y_1'' - y_1 + y_0^3 + y_0^2y_1, \end{align} $$
where in the last line we used the fact that $y_0'' - y_0 = 0$. Now $y_0^3$ is small but $y_0^2y_1$ is even smaller, so let's throw the smaller away. We then arrive at the final approximation to $(1)$,
$$ \begin{align} 0 &\approx y_1'' - y_1 + y_0^3 \\ &= y_1'' - y_1 + \epsilon^3 e^{-3x}. \tag{3} \end{align} $$
Solving this yields
$$ y_1(x) = -\frac{\epsilon^3}{8} e^{-3x} + Ae^{-x} + Be^x. $$
We need to have $y_1 \ll y_0$, and this can't be true if $B \neq 0$, so we take $B = 0$. Further, if $A \neq 0$ then $y_1(x) \sim Ae^{-x}$ for large $x$, so we won't have $y_1 \ll y_0$ in that case either. Thus we take $A = B = 0$, and we are left with
$$ y_1(x) = -\frac{\epsilon^3}{8} e^{-3x}, $$
which is $\ll y_0$ both as $\epsilon \to 0$ and as $x \to \infty$.
Note that since $y = y_0 + y_1$ and $y(0) = y_0(0) = \epsilon$ we need to have $y_1(0) \ll \epsilon$, and this is indeed true since $y_1(0) = -\epsilon^3/8$.
Thus
$$ y(x) \approx \epsilon \left( e^{-x} - \frac{\epsilon^2}{8} e^{-3x} + \cdots \right). $$
Note also that there is a typo in your exercise, the $+$ should be a $-$.