Asymptotic Inequality in Probability

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Given that $P(X>a)\leq f(a)$. Now, $f(a)$ tends to zero faster than $P(Y>a)$. Does it mean that $(1)P(X>a) \leq P(Y>a)$ or $(2)P(X>a) \geq P(Y>a)$ as $a \rightarrow \infty$.

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Hint: If $f(a)$ tends form a positive number to zero faster than $P(Y>a)$, then $P(Y>a) \geq f(a)$ will hold in general, because $f(a)$ is generally closer to $0$.